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Impairment test

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA SBR Strategic Business Reporting Forums › Impairment test

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by litimus.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • May 21, 2012 at 3:40 pm #52770
    ddnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Can anybody explain for me what is notional goodwill, I saw on revision p2 kit that when we test impairment, such as A hold B 60%, goodwill is 50, net asset B is 100 and recoverable B is 80 they take:
    50 x 100%/60 + 100 and compare with 80, the difference x 60% will be the impairment loss, I don’t understand why they don’t take 50+100 and compare with 80?

    May 22, 2012 at 2:44 pm #97915
    Ysbq
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 91
    • ☆☆

    well it is simple that we gross up the goodwill to 100%, since we are given the recoverable value of 100% of business while 50 is 60% of total goodwill that is attributable to A.

    Hence to calculate impairment, we calculate the amount of 100% goodwill (gross up to 100%) add it to the value of net assets and compare the result with the recoverable amount of B to reach the total impairment,

    To calculate the A’s share in impairment, u multiple total impairment with the amount of holding % of A.

    hope that this helps you…

    May 23, 2012 at 3:40 am #97916
    ddnguyen
    Member
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Got it,

    thanks

    May 23, 2012 at 6:11 am #97917
    litimus
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 18
    • ☆

    Good saw the concept in dec 2011 paper also confused me at first

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