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SBRimpairment reversal

Jjudy6y ago
found this question in the BPP study text. does anyone know why there no impairment reversal on the patent? what do they mean by "more advanced model"? A cash generating unit comprising a factory, plant and equipment etc and associated purchased goodwill becomes impaired because the product it makes is overtaken by a technologically more advanced model produced by a competitor. The recoverable amount of the cash generating unit falls to $60m, resulting in an impairment loss of $80m, allocated as follows: Carrying amounts before impairment ( $m ) Goodwill 40 Patent (with no market value) 20 Tangible long-term assets 80 Total 140 Carrying amounts after impairment ( $m ) Goodwill 0 Patent (with no market value) 0 Tangible long-term assets 60 Total 60 After three years, the entity makes a technological breakthrough of its own, and the recoverable amount of the cash generating unit increases to $90m. The carrying amount of the tangible long-term assets had the impairment not occurred would have been $70m. Required Calculate the reversal of the impairment loss. Answer The reversal of the impairment loss is recognised to the extent that it increases the carrying amount of the tangible non-current assets to what it would have been had the impairment not taken place, ie a reversal of the impairment loss of $10m is recognised and the tangible non-current assets written back to $70m. Reversal of the impairment is not recognised in relation to the goodwill and patent because the effect of the external event that caused the original impairment has not reversed – the original product is still overtaken by a more advanced model
EEmmanuel6y ago#1
Solution Calculation of impairment loss and reversal Assets CA before imp Imp.Loss CA aft Imp Reversal CA aft Rev $m $m $ $ $ Goodwill 40 40 0 Patent 20 20 0 NCA 80 20 60 10 70 140 80 60 10 70 According to the standard only $10m will be reversed to take the asset should be if the impairment had not occured(80-10)
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