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hi sir in december 2011 Q1 captive had an impairment in goodwill but captive did not give no impairment to the NCI but in june 2013 Q1 park gave the remaining impairment after giving soe to goodwill to NCI and RETAINED EARNINGS..i am am very confused sir,why did this happen?because in both of these two questions it was the proportionate net asset method that was use to value NCI not the fair value method..
Why do you keep sending a second post saying merely “Hello sir”?
Without either question in front of me, I think I’m probably correct in saying that the examiner has started to add the notional goodwill attributable to the nci in the calculation of goodwill impairment.
But if you look closely at the answers, again I believe that the notional goodwill is exactly the same as the notional impairment.
So, if I add a notional amount to determine the overall impairment and then allocate it, the amount allocated to the nci is equal to the notional goodwill that I notionally added to determine overall impairment.
I’ve not read anything from the examiner to explain this treatment and I’m reluctant to start playing around with it at this late stage before the December exams
If anyone knows of a pertinent article that I have missed or that I may have failed to remember, I shall appreciate a link to that article
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