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Dear sir,
I confuse that: ” Impairment of Goodwill allocate to both of Non-controlling interest and Retained earning of Group or Retained earning of Group only?
Thanks for your time!
Where the nci is valued on a proportional basis then no goodwill is attributed to them … it is entirely attributed to the parent entity
So when that goodwill is impaired, the fully amount of the impairment is allocated against the parent
If, on the other hand, the nci is NOT valued on a proportional basis but IS valued on a full, fair value basis, then an element of goodwill as at date of acquisition IS attributed to the nci and thus, when the goodwill is later impaired, the nci is hit with their proportional share of that goodwill impairment
OK?
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