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Impairment - IAS 36

AAna9y ago
The following measures relate to a non-current asset: 1 - Carrying amount $20,000 2 - Net realisable value $18,000 3 - Value in use $22,000 4 - Replacement cost $50,000 What is the recoverable amount of the asset? a) $18,000 b) $20,000 c) $22,000 (correct answer) d) $50,000 I as considering that the net selling price would be the $50k (cost of a new asset) less the $18k (net realisable value that I understood could be the amount received if the asset was sold). So, $33k is higher than the value in use of $22k. But this option does not exists of course. So, I got confused. Could you please explain the difference between the elements 1 to 4 above? Thanks.
MMikeLittleTutor9y ago#1
"I as considering that the net selling price would be the $50k (cost of a new asset) less the $18k (net realisable value that I understood could be the amount received if the asset was sold)" How can this make any sense? If you sell it for $50,000 - $18,000 = $32,000 (not $33,000!) how can you sell it for $18,000 net realisable value? It's carried at $20,000 (cost less accumulated depreciation) We can sell it for $18,000 (net realisable value = net sale proceeds) If we keep it and use it, it's worth $22,000 to us (value in use) If we have to buy a replacement machine, that's going to cost us $50,000 Recoverable amount is the HIGHER of value in use compared with net sale proceeds OK?
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