Impairment - IAS 36

"I as considering that the net selling price would be the $50k (cost of a new asset) less the $18k (net realisable value that I understood could be the amount received if the asset was sold)" How can this make any sense? If you sell it for $50,000 - $18,000 = $32,000 (not $33,000!) how can you sell it for $18,000 net realisable value? It's carried at $20,000 (cost less accumulated depreciation) We can sell it for $18,000 (net realisable value = net sale proceeds) If we keep it and use it, it's worth $22,000 to us (value in use) If we have to buy a replacement machine, that's going to cost us $50,000 Recoverable amount is the HIGHER of value in use compared with net sale proceeds OK?