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Impairment – IAS 36

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Impairment – IAS 36

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 21, 2017 at 5:29 pm #373549
    abeckman
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 5
    • ☆

    The following measures relate to a non-current asset:
    1 – Carrying amount $20,000
    2 – Net realisable value $18,000
    3 – Value in use $22,000
    4 – Replacement cost $50,000

    What is the recoverable amount of the asset?

    a) $18,000
    b) $20,000
    c) $22,000 (correct answer)
    d) $50,000

    I as considering that the net selling price would be the $50k (cost of a new asset) less the $18k (net realisable value that I understood could be the amount received if the asset was sold). So, $33k is higher than the value in use of $22k. But this option does not exists of course. So, I got confused. Could you please explain the difference between the elements 1 to 4 above?

    Thanks.

    February 21, 2017 at 6:51 pm #373556
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23361
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    “I as considering that the net selling price would be the $50k (cost of a new asset) less the $18k (net realisable value that I understood could be the amount received if the asset was sold)”

    How can this make any sense?

    If you sell it for $50,000 – $18,000 = $32,000 (not $33,000!) how can you sell it for $18,000 net realisable value?

    It’s carried at $20,000 (cost less accumulated depreciation)

    We can sell it for $18,000 (net realisable value = net sale proceeds)

    If we keep it and use it, it’s worth $22,000 to us (value in use)

    If we have to buy a replacement machine, that’s going to cost us $50,000

    Recoverable amount is the HIGHER of value in use compared with net sale proceeds

    OK?

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  • The topic ‘Impairment – IAS 36’ is closed to new replies.

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