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IFRS15 Options / Breakage

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › IFRS15 Options / Breakage

  • This topic has 0 replies, 1 voice, and was last updated 7 years ago by Avatarbrian001.
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  • December 28, 2018 at 5:15 am #499367
    Avatarbrian001
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hi,

    Appreciate if you can kindly help to have a look at the below:

    In an example provided by a pwc guide, the situation is as follows:

    Entity contracts with customer who paid $200 for Service A and an option to purchase Service B for $100.

    Standalone selling price for A and B are $200 and $160 respectively.
    Estimated standalone selling price for the option is $50 taking into account the possibility of exercising the option.

    As a result, allocation of transaction price would be $160 to A and $40 to option for B.

    It follows that when option is exercised by customer afterwards, Revenue of $100 + $40 = $140 is recognised.

    Question:

    Because the incremental benefit of the option offered is $160 – $100 = $60 for getting service B, and the standalone selling price given is $50, would that imply a probability of exercising the option of 83%? (e.g. entity expects a breakage of 17%)

    If so should be recognise revenue of ($40/83%) + $100 = $150?

    Many thanks,

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