I am confused why in Kaplan textbook, it states, IFRS2 and IFRS 16 is not in the scope of IFRS13. However, in IFRS2 measurement of share based payment, regardless using direct or indirect method, it always use the fair value. I am confused. it does use fair value, why the study book says not
I think I understand why IFRS13 deosn’t apply to IAS2 and IFRS16, is below correct?
IAS 2 , inventory- initially recognised at cost IFRS16, ROU at cost model, liability using PV of futture lease payment
NRV of inventory Share based pay Value in use – impairment Lease assets
Because definitions in those standards may not match up precisely – but not worth losing sleep over – if it’s one of the above topics don’t go on about IFRS 13