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Can someone please explain how to account for the impairment of a financial asset classified as fair value through profit and loss? Ie. in case of a bond do we use the market rate or the original effective rate for the future cash flows for impairment purposes? thx
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use the market rate and do not bother about its impairment as any changes will be reported in profit/loss according to ifrst9.effective rate is used for amortise cost and not to determine present value otherwise stated
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