I understand the definition of IAS40 regarding investment property is:
(1) A property (land or building – or part of a building – or both) (2) held (by the owner or by the lessee as a right to use asset) (3) To earn rentals or for capital appreciation or both
“earn rentals” means the Company would offer the lease of the property under operating lease. Is it right as in the financial lease, the Company would derecognize the asset and recognize net investment in the lease.