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IAS 40

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › IAS 40

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
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    Posts
  • April 21, 2020 at 1:48 pm #568886
    Keshav20
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    As per IAS 40, on initial recognition investment property should be measured at cost + directly attributable costs and subsequent to initial recognition-has a choice between cost model and FV model.

    Assume that a property was constructed for future use as investment property and has a cost of $ 4m on 01 May 2018. It has a useful life of 8 years.

    If the fair value of the investment property is $ 5m on 31 Oct 2018.

    The company has a year end of 31 December 2018 and it has an accounting policy to use the fair value model.

    Do a depreciation charge has to made for the period 01 May 2018 to 31 Oct 2018??
    Or is it accounted directly at $5m.

    That is, is the answer should be:

    Cost = $4m- $0.25m(Depreciation)=$3.75m
    Then revalued to $5m(FV). That is a revaluation surplus of $1.25

    Or

    No depreciation to be made. Directly accounted as $5m and a revaluation surplus of $1m

    Kindly help.

    April 23, 2020 at 8:14 pm #569080
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7228
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    I think you need to rework the IAS 40 lectures/notes. Under the fair value model, no depreciation is charged. The useful life figure given is trying to trick you, just ignore it.

    The asset is help at $5m at the reporting date and the $1m gain goes through profit or loss.

    The revaluation surplus is only used for revaluation of PPE and this is a change in value of IP and so goes through profit or loss.

    Thanks

    Chris

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