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IAS 39 states that if the impairment loss decreases at a later date,the reversal is recognised in profit or loss and the carrying amount of the asset must not exceed the original amortised cost.
What is the the original amortised cost ? Is it the amortised cost before impairment or the amortised cost which it should be on reversal date as if there were no impairment loss?Thank you very much
It’s the amortised cost which would have been the carrying value if we hadn’t impaired it – so if it were impaired 2 years ago, we’ll need to check the revised amortised cost as at today with the amortised cost it would have been if we had carried on amortising for those two years
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Thank you!
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