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sir as per IAS 21 if there is no change in the FV of an asset(that is measured using revaluation model) since its purchase last year, then at the reporting date do we retranslate the asset at the closing exchange rate?
sir I realised the title of this post is slightly misleading. I actually wanted to write IAS 21 under FV model. I know that IAS 21 is effects of changes in foreign exchange rates. Apologies for the goof up.
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