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how to solve this question

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › how to solve this question

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 19, 2015 at 8:37 pm #247255
    shilpee
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Net assets 900,000 Ordinary share capital 400,000
    (400,000 shares of £1 each fully paid)
    Share Premium 100,000
    Revaluation reserve 200,000
    Revenue reserves 200,000
    900,000 900,000

    The directors of the company have decided to make a bonus issue on a one-for-two basis, followed immediately by a rights issue on a one-for-four basis, at a premium of 60p.
    You are required to prepare a balance sheet after the above share issues have taken place and to explain the changes that have occurred in the reserves of the company. Assume the company wishes to retain the maximum dividend payment potential.

    i cant understand the meaning of
    one-for-one
    one-for-two
    one for-four
    one-for-five

    &

    (400,000 shares of £1 reach fully paid)

    please help me solve this question and make me understand as well

    May 20, 2015 at 8:59 am #247317
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54671
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You need to watch the free lecture on this (it is part of the lecture on limited companies) because I cannot type out the whole lecture here.

    1 for 1 means that they issue 1 new share for every 1 already held (so if (for example) there are currently 100,000 shares then they will issue another 100,000 shares).

    1 for 2 means they they issue 1 new share for every 2 already held (so if there are currently 100,000 shares they will issue an extra 1/2 x 100,000 = 50,000 new shares)

    and so on..!

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    Posts
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