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Help on MCQ

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Help on MCQ

  • This topic has 2 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 5, 2015 at 5:29 am #253457
    olaniyi
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 20
    • ☆

    Hi John,
    Kindly assist, as usual.

    The share price is $4.
    They announce a 1 for 5 rights at $3.10 per share. What percentage of the rights offered to a shareholder does the shareholder needs to take up as to have no net cash flow resulting from the issue?

    Thanks.

    June 5, 2015 at 6:44 am #253476
    Salman
    Member
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 130
    • ☆☆

    Ignore the answer above.

    First, we need to calculate the ex-rights price.

    Now since total shares will be 5+1.
    The price will be (5×4/6) + (3.1/6) = $3.85

    Suppose someone currently owns 10000 shares (any number will do – 10000 is easy!)
    They are currently worth 10,000 x $4 = $40,000

    After the rights issue, they must be worth in total $40,000 and therefore if there is to be no cash effect, their shares must in total be worth $40,000.

    Since the new MV is $3.85, it means they must now own 40,000/3.85 = 100390 shares – 390 more than before.

    They were entitled to 1/5 x 10,000 = 2,000 shares.

    So they must have taken up 390/2,000 = 19.5% of their rights

    June 5, 2015 at 7:43 am #253502
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Salman: although your answer is correct, please do not answer in this forum. It is the Ask the Tutor Forum, and you are not the tutor 🙂

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