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Help beta working- question 9 Pre Sept mock exam

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Help beta working- question 9 Pre Sept mock exam

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by LMR1006.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 2, 2023 at 4:28 pm #691189
    Soosees29
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Hi,

    I am struggling to understand how the answer for Step 1 in this question is calculated.

    The answer I get is “2” for step one. My working is from the inside brackets to outside brackets and then x / + – , could you please help with where I’m going wrong, I can’t get the answer 1.304.

    Question:

    South Co is a private company that wants to establish its cost of equity in order to evaluate a new investment proposal. North Co is a listed company that is very similar to South Co.
    South Co has a debt:equity ratio of 1:3
    North Co has a debt:equity ratio of 1:4
    North Co’s equity beta is 1.50
    Corporation tax is 40%
    Calculate an appropriate beta for South Co to use in its cost of equity calculation to 2 decimal places.

    Answer:

    Step 1 – estimate an ungeared (asset) beta from North
    Co’s equity beta
    Assuming a debt beta of zero:
    Ba = Be (Ve/(Ve+ Vd(1-T))
    Ve = value of equity
    Vd = Value of debt
    T = rate of tax
    Ba = 1.50 x 4/(4 + 1 (1-0.40)) = 1.304

    Step 2 – estimate the geared (equity) beta for South Co
    Be = Ba (Ve+ Vd(1-T)Ve)
    = 1.304 × (3+1 (1-0.40)/3)
    =1.56

    September 2, 2023 at 8:35 pm #691202
    LMR1006
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1476
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The answer is beta asset = beta equity * ( E / ( E * D(adj for tax))

    So in other words it is Ba = 1.50 * (4 / 4.6) as you must work out Debt first then add it to equity – so 1 * 0.6 + 4 = 4.6

    That gives you the bottom part of the formula

    Then 4 / 4.6 gives you 0.8695 then multiply by 1.25 which results in 1.304

    Hope that answers your question
    You have to work out D (adj for tax), then calculate D+E

    Then divide E by (E + D(adj for tax))

    Then multiply by Be to get Ba

    September 3, 2023 at 11:37 am #691239
    Soosees29
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Hi, thank you so much for the response, makes sense. I will keep practicing 🙂

    September 3, 2023 at 10:46 pm #691264
    LMR1006
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1476
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome :0-)

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    Posts
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