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- August 23, 2022 at 9:36 am #664013
Hi sir/s
I have a question from Kaplan study text:
“In January Grayton, whose functional currency is the dollar, decided that it was highly probable that it would buy an item of plant in one year’s time for KR 200,000. As a result of being risk averse, it wished to hedge the risk that the cost of buying KRs would rise and so entered into a forward rate agreement to buy KR 200,000 in one year’s time for the fixed sum of $100,000. The fair value of this contract at inception was zero and it was designated as a hedging instrument.
At Grayton’s reporting date of 31 July, the KR had depreciated and the value of KR 200,000 was $90,000. The fair value of the derivative had declined by $10,000. These values remained unchanged until the plant was purchased.
HOW SHOULD THIS BE ACCOUNTED FOR?”
When I read this question I initially thought it was a fair value hedge, accounted for through profit or loss, because Grayton was hedging the movement in the fair value of KR currency. However the answer says it’s a cash flow hedge, and I don’t understand why? I know Grayton is planning to purchase a non-financial item, but that affects the gain or loss in equity. How can I tell from a question if it’s a cash flow hedge or fair value hedge if not specified in the question?
August 24, 2022 at 6:01 pm #664167FV HEDGE
Usually of FV of something already recognised on the SFP
CF HEDGE
Usually of cash flows associated with highly probable future transaction.
This will tie in with the Kaplan example.
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