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Sir in part B of this question while calculating the excess earnings the BPP says that we use average the tangible assets but in mark scheme they used average capital employed and substracted the liabilities..arent these 2 different things and which method should be followed?
also sir in part c (ii) of this question…
pls let me know why is this way of calculation wrong?Cash offer – 1.33
Hav’s share – 9.24
less 2 strand co ‘s share (4.76 x 2) =9.52
PREMIUM= 1.05
% premium = 1.05/4.76 x 100 = 22%
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