sir,
I have a doubt from kaplan question.
page no. 85.
a loss on fair value through other comprehensive income financial assets for the year $100.
in solution, they are dividing this loss of 100 between NCI and parent.
but they didnt explicitly said that 100 is loss of subsidary. why they are assuming that it is a loss of FV of an asset of subsidary. how can we judge?
I have a doubt from kaplan question.
page no. 85.
a loss on fair value through other comprehensive income financial assets for the year $100.
in solution, they are dividing this loss of 100 between NCI and parent.
but they didnt explicitly said that 100 is loss of subsidary. why they are assuming that it is a loss of FV of an asset of subsidary. how can we judge?
