Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Goodwill – March 2016 Examiner Report comment
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- June 3, 2017 at 11:03 am #389894
When the proportion of net assets method for valuing the NCI is used instead an explanation is required regarding the difference. It is part of the explanation in the Examiner’s Report regarding Goodwill being ‘grossed up’ – I don’t quite understand this comment – can you please clarify?
Thanks
June 3, 2017 at 11:24 am #389901This is a very rare visitor to F7 and it’s not covered in the course notes (nor lectures)
Where nci is valued on a proportionate basis, no goodwill is attributable to them when we calculate the goodwill figure on acquisition in working W2
When there is an impairment of goodwill, however, we must pretend that there is some notional goodwill attributable to the nci
Then check to see if there in fact is any impairment necessary and, if there is, that impairment is divided between the parent and (notionally!) the nci
But because the nci don’t have any goodwill in the valuation of their investment, we clearly cannot deduct this notional share from the nci
So only the parent’s percentage of the impairment is expensed each year as appropriate
It’s awkward and it’s very infrequent so I wouldn’t get excited about it. Clearly the approved providers don’t cover the issue in any depth either if I interpret the examiner’s comments correctly
“Answers were either non-existent or clearly had no real understanding of either method or the differences between them”
OK?
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