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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › goodwill impairment
is there any case that goodwill impairment should only be charged against to subsidary’s retained earnings ? Cheers!
Not that I can think of – why would it be? It isn’t even partly charged against the subsidiary retained earnings so why anyone would want to charge it fully against the subsidiary beats me!
