• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • FIA Forums
  • CIMA Forums
  • OBU Forums
  • Qualified Members forum
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

March 2026 ACCA Exams

Comments & Instant poll

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Goodwill calculation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Goodwill calculation

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 5, 2020 at 5:17 am #594095
    alankang
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Hi Sir,

    Hope you’re well there.

    When we do goodwill calculation, it is “FV of consideration transferred + FV of NCI + FV of previously interest held – FV of NA”.

    Assuming, the NA of subsidiary is negative figure and come to goodwill calculation, should we add or minus the negative figure from NA of subsidiary?

    For example,

    Share capital = $1,000
    Pre-acquisition = ($7,000)
    FV of consideration transferred = $900
    FV of NCI = $100
    Full goodwill method is using

    If based on my solution, my goodwill calculation will be $900 + $100 – ($1,000 – $7,000). Hence, my goodwill acquisition will be $7,000 and this $7,000 will be categorized under Goodwill in SoFP.

    Will it be possible that my solution is wrong as my mind tell me that it maybe a bargain purchase and $5,000 ($1,000 – $6,000) should immediately charged to SoPL.

    Can you please me to clear my mind about this calculation?

    Thank you.

    Regards,
    Alan

    November 7, 2020 at 8:06 am #594328
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 3444
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I can’t see the logic of your question – you would not pay money for something where the FV of the NA is negative. I would assume that the NA have been incorrectly valued!

    But goodwill would be 900 + 100 + 6000 = 7000.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Kaplan ACCA Free Trial

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE Exams – Instant Poll

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • tehreem21 on MA Chapter 2 Questions Sources of Data
  • vesuvianthree0 on What is Assurance? – ACCA Audit and Assurance (AA)
  • amanization on What is Assurance? – ACCA Audit and Assurance (AA)
  • Sid24012003 on Government grants – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • John Moffat on Foreign exchange risk management (1) Part 1 – ACCA (AFM) lectures

Copyright © 2026 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in