Skip to content

Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM

General

Vvasvi9y ago
Sir, could you please explain when to use the below 2 formulae: 1. FCFe x g/ (Ke - g) 2. [ FCFe (1+g) ] / (Ke-g) Also, in the formula g=bre, what does 'e' stand for? Thank you
Vvasvi9y ago#1
Also(2nd), when they question says just beta, is it asset beta or equity beta?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor9y ago#2
First question: I don't know where you have seen the first formula. If we are calculating the PV of a perpetuity of FCFE's then it is the second formula (the same formula as on the formula sheet for dividend valuations, which can be applied to get the PV of any inflating perpetuity). Second question: This is really an F9 thing. The growth rate is the proportion retained multiplied by the rate of return on reinvestment. Re is the rate of return on reinvestment, but if we do not know what that is, then we assume it to be the return to shareholders (equity) and so the 'e' stands for equity.
Vvasvi9y ago#3
Got it sir, Thank you so much.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor9y ago#4
You are very welcome :-)
RRaza9y ago#5
sir can you tell me why an intrinsic value can't be negative and if its negative why we write it as zero,
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor9y ago#6
I assume that you are asking about options (but if you are then in future please start a new thread - this had nothing at all to do with the earlier question in this thread!!!) If the intrinsic value is negative then why would anybody consider buying the option? They wouldn't, and therefore it has no value.
RRaza9y ago#7
ok sir i will make sure thank you so much............
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor9y ago#8
You are welcome :-)
Sign into reply to this topic.