How does “selling an asset under a sale and leaseback agreement’ reduce gearing ratio(I am aware somebody asked the same question sometime back but I am unable to find that thread now). Shouldn’t it increase the gearing ratio? Effects according to me: Decreases asset (asset sold) Increased Right to use asset (with a lower amount than asset sold due to asset’s transferred portion) Increases lease liability Increase equity(due to gain transferred with a much lower amount)