Hello,
I am struggling to understand why when a loan is made between a parent and a foreign subsidiary the exchange gain/loss made on the loan is not eliminated. I understand that the capital balance of the loan is eliminated along with the interest but I do not understand why the exchange gain or loss arising from it is not eliminated. Surely this will lead to an overstatement/understatement of profits if recognised and not eliminated.
If you could explain this I would really appreciate it
I am struggling to understand why when a loan is made between a parent and a foreign subsidiary the exchange gain/loss made on the loan is not eliminated. I understand that the capital balance of the loan is eliminated along with the interest but I do not understand why the exchange gain or loss arising from it is not eliminated. Surely this will lead to an overstatement/understatement of profits if recognised and not eliminated.
If you could explain this I would really appreciate it
