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FURLION MAR/JUN 16 (KAPLAN EXAM KIT)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › FURLION MAR/JUN 16 (KAPLAN EXAM KIT)

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • December 5, 2020 at 6:37 am #597684
    joevassallo
    Participant
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 127
    • ☆☆

    Dear John

    Can you please help with a query that I have in this question.

    I am unable to grasp how the Pa of $10.68 has been derived?

    This is an Option to Expand.
    The initial NPV was negative $1.01
    The project investment is $15m and the NPV is $0

    I thought that Pa is the present value of all expected cash flows (excluding the initial investment)…

    The answer solution just shows :
    Current price (value of project including the option exercise price)
    $15 x 0.712 (presumably the discount factor 12% of 3 year) = $10.68
    But I cannot follow this logic.

    Thank you.

    December 5, 2020 at 8:28 am #597708
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The project requires an investment of $15M in three years time, and so for the NPV to be zero the PV of the returns from the investment must also be $15M in three years time.

    We need the PV of the returns ‘now’ (not in three years time) and therefore we need to discount the $15M for three years.

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