In the official answer written by ACCA while calculating financing side effect it wrote like this as follows
The base case net present value is calculated as approximately $708,000. This is positive but marginal.
The following financing side effects apply
$’000 Issue costs 4/96 x $14,488 =(604)
Tax Shield Annual tax relief = (14,488 x 80% x 0·055 x 25%) + (14,488 x 20% x 0·075 x 25%) = 159·4 + 54·3 = 213·7 213·7 x 3·588= 766
Subsidy benefit 14,488 x 80% x 0·02 x 75% x 3·588= 624 Total benefit of financing side effects 786
According to me it should be
$’000 Issue costs 4/96 x $14,488 =(604)
tax relief on issue cost 604x0.25=151
Tax Shield Annual tax relief = (14,488 +151) x 80% x 0·055 x 25%)=166x3.588=596
interest saved=Subsidy benefit 15092 x 80% x 0·02 x x 3·588= 865
tax relief lost due to cheap finance ( 15092x80%x.02=241) 241x0.25x3.588=(216)
total benefit of financing side benefit is 792
I want to know why answer written in the official ACCA answer does not take the account of tax relief on issue cost?, in kaplan book taught us to there will be tax relief on issue cost of debt and it also said never forget to add issue cost in the debt value
Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM
Fubuki Co dec 2010
i already asked the tutor the same question. look at an earlier post poseted by me. concerning the issue of adding the issue cost, the examinar stated that credits will still be given to those who did it that way. thus to me it seems like it is not a rule to always add. maybe different people treat it differently
thank you
thank you quest for knowledge
Just make sure you state assumptions :-)
Dear Sir,
Reference : BPP study text question :38 Mercury training.
While calculating the overall asset beta for mercury they assume that Jupiter
portion is .67 and financial sector is .33.
My question is how did they get it?
Silly me . I got my answer. sorry to bother.
I am pleased you found your answer :-)
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