Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › From Associate to Subsidiary
- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
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- December 28, 2020 at 1:56 pm #601062
Let say PCF acquired SNT by two purchases:
01/04/2009 Acquisition cost paid $6,000, FV = $24,000 25% Acquired.
31/03/2010 Acquisition cost paid $26,000, FV $40,000 65%Acquired.The financial year ends on 31/03. The FV of NCI is measured as a proportionate interest in the FV of the subsidiary as an entity. Information relating to SNT is as follows:
Intangibles 01/04/09 BV = 0, FV = 3,600; 31/3/2010 BV = 0, 31/3/2010 FV = $3,200
Inventory 01/04/09 BV = 2,000 FV = 2,400; 31/3/2020 BV = 4,000 FV = 4,800
Other net assets 01/04/09 BV = 18,000 FV = 18000; 31/3/2020 BV = 24,000 FV = 24,000Share capital 01/04/09 BV = 8,000 ; 31/3/2010 BV = 8,000
Retained Earnings 01/04/09 BV = 12,000; 31/3/2010 BV 20,000The fair value of other net assets and net identifiable assets are stated before considering the impact of deferred tax. Tax bases of the assets and liabilities of SNT remain unchanged.
The net profit of SNT for the Y/E 31/03/2010 was $8,000
Intangibles of SNT had a remaining useful life of 6 years from 1/4/09 and all inventories were sold within 2 months from the year end.
Both PCF and SNT did not declare any dividends during the y/e 31/03/2010.
The accounting policy of PCF is to account for the investment in associates at cost in its separate financial statements.
My question is how to calculate the Adjusted Profit and why do we need to less the adjusted profit when calculating on the gain on disposal?
December 31, 2020 at 9:57 am #601215I assume this is a past exam question but it doesn’t look like SBR. Is it in an exam kit? If so which one?
You need to be a lot more precise about the specific question you are asking please.
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