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Forex Risk Management Lecture (1) Part 7

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Forex Risk Management Lecture (1) Part 7

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 1, 2023 at 11:06 am #691109
    i.dislike.tax
    Participant
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Hi John,

    Why is it that on the date of the transaction you divide by the lower rate, i.e., 1.4791 to convert to spot, but then while calculating the profit, you divide by 1.4812?

    September 1, 2023 at 4:06 pm #691132
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54700
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    To pay the supplier we are buying $’s and so convert at 1.4791.

    We are receiving a $ gain on the futures therefore we need to sell $’s and so convert at 1.4812.

    (What they could do is use the $ gain on the futures to part pay the $500,000 and so only the net $ amount would need to be converted at 1.4791). Either is acceptable in the exam.

    September 1, 2023 at 4:18 pm #691143
    i.dislike.tax
    Participant
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Got it. Thanks – the lectures are extremely helpful!

    September 1, 2023 at 4:54 pm #691149
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54700
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome (and thank you for the comment 🙂 )

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘Forex Risk Management Lecture (1) Part 7’ is closed to new replies.

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