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FOREX

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › FOREX

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
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    Posts
  • January 27, 2021 at 12:40 am #608168
    carmenl26
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Hi sir, I was wondering if you could help me, I have calculated many times but still couldn’t get the answer.

    Liverpool Co is a UK based trading company. It sells around the world, mainly in Asia.

    Today, on 1st of March 2020, sold products worth in Hong Kong (HK) $30m on a three months credit.

    The company also expecting a receipt of Euro 2m from a Spain company in six months’ time.

    On 1st June 2020, Liverpool Co has a liability of HK$50m to a major supplier in Singapore.

    Liverpool accounts for all its cash in sterling and uses forward and money market to hedge its currency exposures.

    Following financial information is available for Liverpool co:

    Spot Exchange rate

    Euro per sterling 1.1121 – 1.1128

    HK$ per Sterling 10.8616 – 10.8660

    Annual Interest rates Annual Inflation rates

    UK 2.40% – 2.00% 4%

    Euro 2.70% – 2.30% 4.5%

    Hong Kong 2.30% – 1.95% 3.8%

    Liverpool has no spare cash and any money required need to be borrowed. The owners are considering using futures contract in to hedge against exchange risk.

    All workings to nearest sterling.

    Q1 Using money market hedging, determine the sterling cash flow for Liverpool in 3 months’ time?
    ANSWER : 1,843,411

    Q2 Using the 6 months forward rate, what would the net cash inflow for Liverpool in 6 months time?
    ANSWER : 1,794,600

    Thank You.

    January 27, 2021 at 9:51 am #608206
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54664
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Q1. They will be paying a net $20m in three months time. Therefore they will invest $’s ‘now’ at interest of 1.95 / 4 = 0.4875%.
    So the amount they will invest is $20 / (1.004875) = $19.903m

    They will convert at 10.8616 and so will then need 19.903/10.8616 = GBP1.8324m

    They will borrow the GBP at 2.4 / 4 = 0.6%, and will therefore repay in 3 months time 1.8324 x 1.006 = GBP 1.843,394m (the difference will be just rounding, which is irrelevant in the exam).

    Q2. The six month forward rate will be 1.1128 x 1.0225/1.02 = 1.11553
    Therefore the receipt in 6 months time will be 2m / 1.11553 = GBP 1,792,870

    All of the above is explained in my free lectures on foreign exchange risk management.

    (I don’t know where you found the question, but you should be using a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA Approved Publishers. They have answers together with the workings 🙂 )

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