In this example - when calculating the tax payable - I noticed you split it into 2 parts - tax payable in oblivia (20%) and extra UK tax (5% after converting from Euros to £s). This is due to the double taxation treaty.
While I understand this principle - could we not cut out a step and simple tax from the outset 25% which would leave the same net figure after converting to £s?
Would we lose marks by doing this?
Thanks
Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM
Foreign investment appraisal - Example 4 James Plc - Discounted cash flow
Yes, you would lose marks.
There may be other flows that only affect the tax in the home country, and there could be losses in the foreign country that are carried forward against future profits.
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