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Foreign Exchange Risk Management

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Foreign Exchange Risk Management

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 24, 2016 at 9:49 am #312460
    Avatarmtikama
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    I always find difficulties in using spot rates if making a payment or receiving in a different currency. Example

    Scenario 1. When Company B is in US and needs to pay a supplier in UK 800,000 sterling pounds today

    Scenario 2. When Company B is in US and is expected to receive 800,000 sterling pounds from UK today. If spot rates given are as follows:

    Spot $/Pound 1.6413 – 1.6452

    Which spot rates would be used in the scenarios above and why?

    April 24, 2016 at 12:15 pm #312473
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54845
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    For scenario 1 the relevant rate is 1.6452.
    For scenario 2 the relevant rate is 1.6413.
    (It is whichever rate is worst for the company!)

    I do suggest that you watch our free lectures on this because I go through lots of examples sorting out which rate to use and why, and I cannot type out all of the lectures here 🙂

    April 26, 2016 at 1:03 pm #312729
    Avatarmtikama
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Thanks that’s great, I thought first spot rate is for payments and last spot rate is for receipts always.

    April 26, 2016 at 6:54 pm #312778
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54845
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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