Foreign currency

An entity took out loan for 12 million dinar on1/2001. It repaid 3 million dinar to the bank on 30/11/2001. The entity has a reporting date of 31 Dec 2001 and a functional currency of dollar ($). Exchange rates are as follows :

dinar :$1
1/1/2001. 6.0

30/11/2001. 5.0

31/12/2001. 5.6

What is the total loss arising to the nearest $,000 on the above transactions in the year ended 31/12/2001?

Solution

1/1/2001. 12 Million dinar / 6 = $2million

30/11/2001 3 million dinar/ 5 =( $600,000)

Foreign exchange loss =$ 207,000

31/12/2001 = 12million Dinar less 3million dinar = 9million dinar / 5.6 = $1,607,000

How do they get $207,000 as the foreign exchange loss? I don’t understand what kaplan did.
My own solution ??
Retranslating the sale to $ using the spot rate we give 12000/6 = $2m

Dr cash $2m
Cr loan $2m

Translating at the date payment using sport rate = 3000/5 = $600,000

Loss on transaction $2m less $600= $1400
Dr P/L $1400
Dr loan $2m
Cr cash $600

31/12/2001 monetary item retranslation at the reporting date of rate of exchange
Dollar value 12m dinar as / 5.6 = $2142857
Against 12m dinar / 6 = $2,000,000
This will up the credit loan with a diff of = $142857.

But kaplan deducted 12m – 3m and use this diff dinar value and divide it by the reporting rate .
9m / 5.6 = $1,607,000.

But no explanation of how they got the exchange lose of $207,000.

Pls assist.