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Foreign currency

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Foreign currency

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 10, 2017 at 4:51 am #371816
    Anuja Nair
    Member
    • Topics: 365
    • Replies: 353
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Question) A manufacturing entity buys a machine (an item of property, plant and equipment PPE) for 20 million dinars on 1 January 20X1. The machine is held under the Revaluation model and was attributed a useful economic life of 20 years. The entity has a reporting date of 31 December 20X1 and a functional currency of dollars($) Exchange rates are as follows:

    1/1/20X1 : 2 Dinars – $1
    31/12/20×1 : 3 Dinars -$1

    The fair value of the machine at 31 December 20X1 was 32 million dinars.

    What is the carrying amount of the machine at 31 December 20X1 ?

    Hi sir, for the above question I have done up my workings. Can you correct me when i’m wrong ?

    Workings:
    Revaluation model – Therefore, revalue to 32million dinars (Fair value) at end of year

    Initial transaction:
    2 dinars – $1
    32million – $16 million

    Dr PPE $ 16 million
    Cr Payables $16 million

    Since PPE is a non-monetary item, it should be left at $16 million. In addition, since depreciation is given, we must account for it.

    Depreciation for 1 year
    = $16 million / 20 years
    = $0.8million

    Therefore, carrying amount at 31 December 20X1
    = $16 million – $0.8million
    = $ 15.2 million

    Am I right sir ?

    February 10, 2017 at 7:10 am #371826
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23360
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    “Initial transaction:
    2 dinars – $1
    32million – $16 million

    Dr PPE $ 16 million
    Cr Payables $16 million”

    I believe that the initial transaction was buying the machine for 20 million dinars on 1 January 20X1 and that the double entry to record that acquisition should be:

    Dr TNCA (20 million dinars @ 2 dinars = $1) $10,000,000
    Cr Cash / Payables $10,000,000

    At the end of the first year there should be depreciation of $10,000,000 / 20 = $500,000 and a carrying value of $9,500,000

    Then we revalue to 32 million dinars and that, at the rate of 3 dinars = $1, equates to $10,666,667 = a revaluation surplus of $1,166,667

    I believe that’s correct – but what does the solution suggest?

    February 10, 2017 at 7:59 am #371830
    Anuja Nair
    Member
    • Topics: 365
    • Replies: 353
    • ☆☆☆☆

    This question is not from my exam kit. The question in my exam kit was based on cost model. Therefore, i just wanted to understand how will it vary if the revaluation model is used.

    So the value of the machine in the Statement of Financial Position will be $10.67 million with a revaluation gain of $1.17 million right sir ?

    February 10, 2017 at 8:14 am #371834
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23360
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I believe that’s what I wrote, yes

    February 10, 2017 at 8:47 am #371839
    Anuja Nair
    Member
    • Topics: 365
    • Replies: 353
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Okay sir. Thank you !

    February 10, 2017 at 8:50 am #371840
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23360
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You’re welcome

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