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Fleet Plc Question – calculating cost of equity the market value

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Fleet Plc Question – calculating cost of equity the market value

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • November 5, 2013 at 2:02 pm #144618
    mus22
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 14
    • ☆

    Sir I have slightest of doubt in following question.
    QUESTION: The finance team of Fleet plc is undertaking a financial review of a potential
    new project. The new project is in the same industry as Fleet plc and the capital
    structure of the enlarged company will remain unchanged. The following details
    are available:
    The capital structure of Fleet plc as at 1st January 20X8 is as follows:
    £m
    Issued ordinary shares (25p shares) 250
    Bank term loan 300
    8% irredeemable debenture 600
    The ordinary shares have a current market price of £2 each. Dividends per
    share in the five preceding years were as follows:
    20X3 6.9 pence
    20X4 7.2 pence
    20X5 8.8 pence
    20X6 9.6 pence
    20X7 10.5 pence
    The dividend for 20X7 has just been paid.
    The bank is currently charging 10% on the term loan.
    The debenture stock has a market price of £75.
    The company pays corporation tax at a rate of 30%.
    Required:
    Calculate a suitable discount rate for the new project.
    ANSWER:(1) Ke ? DVM with growth
    Ke = Do*(1+g)/Po + g
    Ke =10.50 (1.11 )/200+ 0.11 = 16.83%
    Calculation of growth in dividends:
    10.5/6.9^0.25 – 1 = 11%

    (2) Kd(1 – t) /irredeemable debt
    Kd(1 – t) = 8 × (1 – 0.3)/75 = 7.47%
    (3) Kd(1 – t) – bank term loan
    10% (1 – 0.3) = 7%
    Doubt:
    Sir while calculating cost of equity the market value comes to $2000m rather than $200m and so the cost of equity to be 11.65% as a result . Isn’t this a mistake in the answer.
    Moreover sir while calculating irredeemable debenture why its cost had been grossed up by dividing it by 75%.I got 5.6% simply by accounting for tax relief of 30% on 8%.Thankyou

    November 6, 2013 at 4:51 pm #144782
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    With regard to the equity, the shares have a nominal value of 0.25 and the total on the balance sheet is $250M. This means that there are 1,000 M in issue and at $2 per share market value, this is $2,000 M

    With regard to the debentures, they have no grossed it up. The have taken the after-tax interest (5.6) and divided by the market value (75). This is correct.

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