Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › fixed overhead and volume variance
- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 14 years ago by John Moffat.
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- June 12, 2010 at 12:25 pm #44631
Hi John, was reading the chat log on 11 June, and noticed that you mentioned:
[12:57:26] johnmoffat : {Tophigh} It depends what you mean. If you are asking
about producing a flexed budget, then it stays the same if it is marginal costing,
but it changes if it is absorption costing (which is why there is a volume variance)could you please elaborate a little bit on why there is a volume variance because absorption costing is used? thanks.
June 13, 2010 at 2:03 pm #63985Suppose you are using absorption costing and the total cost per unit includes $3 per unit for fixed overheads.
If you originally budgeted on producing 10000 units, then you were budgeting on there being total fixed costs of $30000.
Suppose you actually produced 9000 units and the actual fixed overheads were $32000.
In your flexed budget you would have fixed overheads as 9000 units (actual production) x $3 per unit (standard cost) = $27000.
This means that the total variance is 32000 – 27000 = 5000. This can be analysed into 2000 (32000 actual total – 30000 budget total) which is the expenditure variance. And a volume variance (due to producing 1000 units less) of 1000 x $3 = 3000.
For more detail on this watch my lecture on this website.
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