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Financial liability

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Financial liability

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
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    Posts
  • July 21, 2021 at 7:11 pm #629053
    kennigara
    Participant
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 250
    • ☆☆☆

    Fair value through p/l

    on 1 jan 20×1 Mcgrath issued financial liability at nominal value of $10m.Interest paid at a rate of 5%. The financial liability is the short term.31december 20×1 it market rate increased to 10%. the liability is repayable on 31 december 20×3
    the liability at 31 dec 20×1

    date————B/F———-interest paid—–C/f
    31/12/x1——10000———-500————-10500

    date————cash flow—————D.F————PV
    31/12/x2———500——————1/1.1————455
    31/x2/x3——–(10000+500)——-1/1.1^2——–8678
    ===================================9133
    the fv of financial liability is 9.13

    dr FL—(10000-9133)-867
    cr p/l–867

    my question here is that since the C/F on 31 december 20×1 is 10500 why we deduct 9133 from 10000 not 10500?when we debit p/l is it again impairment or loss allowance?

    July 21, 2021 at 7:13 pm #629054
    kennigara
    Participant
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 250
    • ☆☆☆

    sorry I wrote debit; my question here is that since the C/F on 31 december 20×1 is 10500 why we deduct 9133 from 10000 not 10500?when we credit p/l what is that ?

    July 22, 2021 at 7:35 am #629080
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3397
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I’m afraid I cannot make sense of your question.

    Please rephrase – perhaps without using numbers.

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