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Financial instruments – expected losses.

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Financial instruments – expected losses.

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
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    Posts
  • August 29, 2016 at 9:34 am #335931
    aamir2111
    Participant
    • Topics: 123
    • Replies: 85
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi Mike,

    As per lec. note page 146:

    Illustration of how the “expected loss” model will work
    — A portfolio of debt instruments has been acquired and recognized at its cost of $40,000. The assets satisfy both the
    business model test and the cash flow characteristics test and have been accounted for at amortised cost.
    — The actual and effective rate of return is 6% but there is an element of doubt about the continuing viability of the
    investee entities and, although there has been no default this year, it is considered likely that the actual rate of return
    Free ACCA course notes • Free ACCA lectures • Free tests • Free tutor support • StudyBuddy • Largest ACCA forums
    Chapter 28 Paper F7 147
    IFRS 9 Financial Instruments March/June 2016 Examinations
    in the long run will be only 4%
    — in applying the expected loss model, only 4% return on the portfolio will be recognized in the statement of profit
    or loss. The amount to be recognized before the expected loss review was 6% × $40,000 ie $2,400 but the expected
    loss restricts the amount to be recognized to just 4% × $40,000 ie $1,600
    — the “missing” 2% ie $800 will be credited to the asset account reducing the value of the portfolio to $40,000 – $800
    ie $39,200
    — the double entry will therefore be:
    Dr Cash 2,400
    Cr Income 1,600
    Cr Asset 800

    My question is, what is the reason behind trying to Dr the cash and Credit the asset with 800?

    August 29, 2016 at 11:18 am #335941
    aamir2111
    Participant
    • Topics: 123
    • Replies: 85
    • ☆☆☆

    In lec note, pg 148

    financial liabilities ( as distinct from equity instruments )
    • these may be classified as either “at amortised cost” or “at FVTPL”
    • if at amortised cost ( applicable to the majority of financial instrument liabilities ) initial measurement is at fair value less any related transaction costs

    Does this mean for FVTPL the initial measurement is Fair value inclusive of transaction cost?

    August 29, 2016 at 12:25 pm #335951
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    ‘My question is, what is the reason behind trying to Dr the cash and Credit the asset with 800?’

    This is what the IASB has decided to be the appropriate treatment where there is sufficient doubt about the recoverability of the interest and / or capital amount of a financial instrument

    If a financial liability is at amortised cost the initial measurement will be net of transaction costs

    If at FVTPL initial measurement will be calculated without deduction of transaction costs

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