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Financial Instruments

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Financial Instruments

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by nikaido.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 13, 2019 at 10:05 pm #515816
    cynthialynch
    Participant
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Good evening,

    What is the classification for debt and shares?

    The technical article says the debt will be measured and accounted for at FVTPL unless they have been designated to be measured at amortised cost. However the lecture notes state that the default treatment for debt is FVTOCI unless they have been designated to be measured at amortised cost.

    The technical article also states the FVTOCI applies to equity instruments only and must be designated upon initial recognition. However, the lecture notes state that the default for equity /shares is FVTPL .

    Seeking clarification please.

    Cynthia

    May 14, 2019 at 7:26 pm #515921
    nikaido
    Member
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 89
    • ☆☆

    Allow me to answer to your second paragraph

    You are pulling things from different angles and they both mean the same.

    To put it simply when u make an investment in another company equity (when u buy shares) an an asset is born in your sfp by the name of investment.

    Now that investment would either go up or down based on the fair value at year end of that investment and u would reflect that movement in your investment ( financial asset) at the year end , So that takes care of the SFP,

    now your confusion is where do u take that decrease or increase in investment, In p and L or FVOCI, Right

    To understand the treatment u must be aware of the MOTIVE of the business why he bought the shares in the first place.

    Motive 1)

    Generally what businesses do or even a rich old dude with lot of spare cash is hold it for short term trading. Whenever he will notice a rise in the value of shares, he would dispose of. This is the default treatment. At the year end whatever the movement would be taken to P and L no questions asked.

    Motive 2)

    Long term investment . The business plan to hold it for a substantially longer duration and for an accounting policy to be applied on such an investment . The entity declares such which is called” irrevocable election ” meaning u cant change your mind. So this relates to what u typed above ”

    FVTOCI applies to equity instruments only and must be designated upon initial recognition”

    Now that entity has designated that these shares are not held for short term trading . whatever the change in there fair values would be taken to FVTOCI.

    May 14, 2019 at 7:43 pm #515924
    nikaido
    Member
    • Topics: 41
    • Replies: 89
    • ☆☆

    The debt is either at amortised cost or FVTPL

    If you have invested in debt then only FVTOCI applies

    You are mixing stuff up

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