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financial instrument

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › financial instrument

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
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  • August 11, 2017 at 5:26 pm #401527
    adarsh1997
    Participant
    • Topics: 646
    • Replies: 282
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hi Mike!

    A issues $100,000 4% convertible loan note, convertible in 3 years time. The market rate of a similar debt without conversion option is 8%
    The PV of 8% are as follows:
    yr 1 0.926
    yr 2 0.857
    yr 3 0.794

    From this example, could you explain the logic of compound instrument?
    How it is an equity and a liability ?
    What does convertible mean?

    Thanks.

    August 11, 2017 at 6:43 pm #401539
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23329
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Calculate the present value of the cash flows necessary to service this loan (interest for 3 years + the capital amount to be repaid)

    Add up those 4 amounts and deduct from the face value of the loan and the resultant difference is therefore attributable to equity

    The total of the 4 figures is attributable to the loan element (the liability)and is the first figure in the table explained below

    Set up your table with columns for

    Brought forward Interest at 8% Less interest paid at 5% Carried forward

    Can you take it from there?

    Convertible means that this is not a straight forward loan of funds that will be repaid in cash sometime in the future (in the case you have quoted it would be repaid after 3 years if this were a straight forward loan)

    But it’s not a straight forward loan! It’s convertible. And that entails the lender having the option to convert this amount due after 3 years into equity shares

    OK?

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