Hello Sir, in question part b it is stated that we have to Calculate the % change in the selling price required for the investment to have a zero net present value.
Now in the Model answer why have they multiplied the 0.75 in every cashflow of Sales revenue
Because for every $1 change in sales revenue, there will be a $1 change in the taxable profit and therefore a $1 x 0.25 change in the tax charge. So the net effect is a change of $1 x 0.75 in the cash flow.