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Fernhurst (sep/dec 16)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Fernhurst (sep/dec 16)

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • May 31, 2020 at 6:05 pm #572452
    Sneha00
    Member
    • Topics: 46
    • Replies: 20
    • ☆☆

    In que the working capital line is not giving clear meaning. It says that we should inflate annually at start of year of 2-4 which means that we don’t have to inflate for year 1, and it will be 1025 in year 1, 1025 in year 2 and 1076 in year 3.
    Can I solve in this way?

    June 1, 2020 at 10:09 am #572487
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No, for two reasons.

    Firstly the working capital is needed at the start of each year. The start of the first year is ‘now’ i.e. time 0. The start of the second year is in 1 years time i.e. time 1, and so on.

    So they need 1025 at time 0 and they need 1066 at time 1 (1025 x 1.04). However, at time 1 the outflow is only the difference of 41 because they already have 1025.

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