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Fcff and fcfe

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Fcff and fcfe

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 15, 2018 at 3:54 pm #437445
    adurich
    Member
    • Topics: 127
    • Replies: 120
    • ☆☆☆

    Could you please help me understanding what free cash flow for firm and equity are and why are they mainly used for.what purpose do they serve .do we use it when asked in question specifically .this may b a very basic question at this point but i need your simple words to understand .in which video lecture i can find it.

    February 15, 2018 at 5:01 pm #437466
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54662
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The free cash flow to the firm is used to calculate the total value of the firm (by discounting at the WACC).
    The free cash flow to equity is used for calculating the value of the equity (by discounting at the cost of equity).

    There is no lecture at the moment, but do look at the chapter on this in the free lectures notes.

    February 18, 2018 at 9:11 am #437835
    abeerasamad
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Hello
    i’m currently doing pursuit co question of june 2011
    please can u tell me how they calculate 32% of growth in operating profit margin

    February 18, 2018 at 9:47 am #437846
    abeerasamad
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    moreover how to calculate the 22c/$1 increase in sales revenue
    additional investment?

    February 18, 2018 at 9:52 am #437847
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54662
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In future please do start a new thread when you are asking a different question.

    There is not 32% growth. The answer says that the operating profit is approximately 32% of sales revenue, which is nothing to do with growth.

    In 2011 the operating profit is 5169 and the revenue is 16146.
    5169/16146 = 32%

    February 18, 2018 at 9:56 am #437848
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54662
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The revenue for May 2011 is 16146.
    The revenue next year (year 1) is forecast at 17115

    Therefore the increase in revenue is 969.

    At 22c per $1 (as per the question) this means additional investment of 0.22 x 969 = 213.

    It is the same procedure for each of the following years.

    February 18, 2018 at 10:00 am #437849
    abeerasamad
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Thank you so much.
    Next time I’ll start with the new thread. sorry for this time

    February 18, 2018 at 11:19 am #437857
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54662
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • The topic ‘Fcff and fcfe’ is closed to new replies.

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