Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › FCFE method
- This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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- April 13, 2015 at 11:34 am #241119
Hi sir
When calculating the Free Cash Flow to Equity, will the examiner ever specifically request that we use direct/indirect method or will he always let us choose our preference?
Thanks
April 14, 2015 at 7:02 am #241223You will never be expected to follow the accounting standard layout – you can arrive at the figures any way you like.
April 14, 2015 at 5:10 pm #241289Dear tutor,
I have an additional question on FCFE, which is based on the question “International Enterprises” from December 2007. This question includes separate interest accrued and interest paid (and Income tax as well). As per the answer, the FCFE are found based on statement of cash flows, but I’d like to clarify the following point in order to achieve better understanding of FCFE concept.
Please confirm whether my understanding of FCFE concept is correct.
Thus, I use the following approach:1) If question does not have separate figures for interest payments (or income tax), then I just use the usual formulas from the study text – either direct or indirect ;
2) However, if there are figures regarding interest and IT payments (such as “International Enertprises”), the formulas are as follows:
Net Income (from P&L) – (which is based on accruals)
Add-back Depreciation – as non-cash
Add-back Interest Accrued – as non-cash
Add-back Income Tax – as non-cash
Less Interest paid (cash, net)
Less Income tax paid (cash)
Less CAPEX (cash)
Less WC investment (cash)
Less Net debt issued (cash)-> So, the key point is to add-back non-cash items including Interest and Income tax if relevant.
->Though, the relevant cash items are deducted afterwards alongside with CAPEX, loan repayments etc.Please clarify whether my understanding is correct.
Thank you in advance.P.S. More than that: calculating the FCFE for the “Question International Enterprises” gives FCFE = 18,9 mln’$, which is less than 24 mln’$ for 5,1 mln’$ which is the WC adjustment 🙂
Thus, my calculation gives precise FCFE which already includes the WC adjustment.
The approach is quite different from the answer, tis longer, but is it still correct?April 14, 2015 at 5:39 pm #241297Your understanding is correct.
Also calculating the FCFE for International Enterprises in the way that you write is fine.
April 14, 2015 at 6:11 pm #241300Thank you very much 🙂
April 15, 2015 at 7:17 am #241342You are welcome 🙂
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