Hi, can anyone plz help me with this confusion? Thanks,
In the OT notes and lectures I learned to adjust the F.V of the assets in working for Goodwill and also in the working to retained earning (minus any excess depreciation).
But in the bpp book the answers I checked had it different.
They had only deducted the excess depreciation from the retained earnings calculation and didn't add the F.V increase.
Which way is correct?
In the OT notes and lectures I learned to adjust the F.V of the assets in working for Goodwill and also in the working to retained earning (minus any excess depreciation).
But in the bpp book the answers I checked had it different.
They had only deducted the excess depreciation from the retained earnings calculation and didn't add the F.V increase.
Which way is correct?
