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Fair value adjustment

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Fair value adjustment

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 24, 2016 at 9:22 am #316783
    rebeccawilliams
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    In the Picant question of June 2010, why is the software of $500,000 removed from the fair value adjustment? Wasn’t it bought at the date of acquisition even if afterwards it was discovered that it had no value?

    May 24, 2016 at 10:12 am #316793
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Within the first 12 months after an acquisition, the acquiring company shall review the fair values of the net assets acquired and make such adjustments as may be necessary to arrive at a more realistic goodwill figure.

    The software had been included but, shortly after the acquisition and certainly within the first 12 months, it was decided that the fair value was zero

    With the benefit of hindsight we can include the software in the working W1 at its fair value of zero

    OK?

    May 24, 2016 at 3:01 pm #316844
    rebeccawilliams
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    You mean the value originally paid for goodwill at the date of acquisition is changed at the year end?

    May 24, 2016 at 6:33 pm #316881
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No, I mean the fair value of the subsidiary net assets at date of acquisition is reviewed

    How can you change the amount paid?

    May 24, 2016 at 8:29 pm #316901
    rebeccawilliams
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    When the value of the net assets of the sub is reviewed at year end, then the value of goodwill changes as compared to what it was at acquisition?

    May 25, 2016 at 7:40 am #316954
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, that’s correct. But your question suggested that you believed the amount paid changed and that is wrong ….

    ….”You mean the value originally paid for goodwill at the date of acquisition is changed”

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