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Factoring

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Factoring

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 31, 2017 at 7:35 pm #389320
    carl123
    Member
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 25
    • ☆

    Good day, Sir Moffat

    Can you please help me with this question.

    ANJO CO

    Receivables ($000): 3,800
    Sales ($000): 15,600

    A factor has offered to take over sales ledger administration and debt collection for an annual fee of 0.5% of credit sales. A condition of the offer is that the factor will advance Anjo Inc 80% of the face value of its receivables at an interest rate 1% above the current overdraft rate. The factor claims that it would reduce outstanding receivables by 30% and reduce administration expenses by 2% per year if its offer were accepted. Anjo Co pays interest on its overdraft at an annual rate of 8%.

    My problem is the solution, the interest in advance:
    2,600 x 80% x 1% = (21.3)

    Why do we put in 1% instead of 9%, it says 1% above the current overdraft rate. Can you please explain this part, Sir.

    Thank you in advance, God bless.

    June 1, 2017 at 6:05 am #389361
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The solution you have is simply looking at the extra interest cost (they are paying the factor interest of 9% to get money earlier, but saving overdraft interest of 8% as a result).

    If you have watched my free lectures on this, then you will know that I prefer to show the full 9% as an extra cost, and the full 8% as a saving.

    However, whichever way you show your workings, the overall saving or extra cost will be exactly the same. It doesn’t matter how you set out your workings.

    June 1, 2017 at 7:07 am #389374
    carl123
    Member
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 25
    • ☆

    Administration expenses ($000): 1000

    So what I would do is:

    Savings
    1140 x 8% (Saved overdraft) = 91.2

    Cost
    2600 x 9% (Extra cost) = 234

    Is this correct?
    If you could do the entire solution here, that would be much appreciated as well, sir.

    June 1, 2017 at 4:07 pm #389484
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am sorry, but we really do not have the time to provide answers to questions that you have found elsewhere.
    Also, you cannot have copied out the whole question – there is no mention of what the current admin expenses are, and also 2,600 x 80% x 1% is certainly not equal to 21.3 🙂

    If it is a past exam question, or is in the current edition of the BPP Revision Kit, then let me know which one.

    I work through an example on factoring in my free lectures. In addition there are lectures working through several working capital past exam questions in our ‘revision kit live’ section (linked from the main F9 page).

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘Factoring’ is closed to new replies.

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