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F9 Revision Mock

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › F9 Revision Mock

  • This topic has 42 replies, 7 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 18 posts - 26 through 43 (of 43 total)
← 1 2
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 22, 2014 at 10:45 am #212134
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    marium salman: Please ask question in this forum but do not answer them – it is the Ask The Tutor Forum and you are not the tutor.

    The market price does NOT have to be given in this question – it is not needed!

    November 22, 2014 at 10:49 am #212136
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Haroon:

    PE ratio = MV/EPS = MV/D x D/EPS

    D/MV = 0.08, so MV/D = 1/0.08 = 12.5

    EPS/D = 2.4, so D/EPS = 1/2.4

    So PE ratio = 12.5 x 1/2.4 = 5.21

    November 22, 2014 at 11:18 am #212164
    Haroon
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Thanku sir..

    November 22, 2014 at 11:21 am #212166
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    November 29, 2014 at 8:36 pm #214511
    sheen
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    LJM Co is considering investing in a new project which will cost $160000.
    It has an expected life of 4years and scarp value of $20000.
    The anticipated net operating cashflows are as follow:
    Year 1 $40000
    Year 2 $60000
    Year 3 $80000
    Year 4 $20000

    Cost of capital is 10% pa.
    What is the ARR?

    I am getting 55.5%. Can you plz explain how to get the correct answer? Thank you and appreciate your efforts Sir

    November 30, 2014 at 8:06 am #214604
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The total operating cash inflows are (40000 + 60000 + 80000 + 20000) = 200,000
    The total depreciation is 160,000 – 20,000 = 140,000
    So the total profit is 200000 – 140000 = 60000
    So the average profit p.a. is 60,000/4 = 15,000

    The average SOFP value of the asset is (160000 + 20000) / 2 = 90,000

    So the ARRA = 15,000 / 90,000 = 16.7%

    November 30, 2014 at 10:14 am #214680
    sheen
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Sir, i have one doubt.

    The total depreciation is 160,000 – 20,000 = 140,000

    While calculating the depreciation, we should divide it by the number of years rite?? This is what i was doing 160 – 20/ 4yrs = 35

    I am still not getting it. Please if you can explain this point. Thank you

    November 30, 2014 at 3:05 pm #214751
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Fine if you want – the depreciation is 35,000 a year.
    However the operating cash inflow is 200,000/4 = 50,000 a year.
    So the average profit p.a. is 50,000 – 35,000 = 15,000. Same as I wrote before 🙂

    November 30, 2014 at 6:11 pm #214822
    sheen
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Oh thats an awesome answer!!! Thank you so much Sir. Wow!!! True life saver 🙂

    December 1, 2014 at 8:18 am #214970
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    May 26, 2015 at 5:42 am #249028
    sarmadkhalid45
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    LJM Co is considering investing in a new project which will cost $160000.
    It has an expected life of 4years and scarp value of $20000.
    The anticipated net operating cashflows are as follow:
    Year 1 $40000
    Year 2 $60000
    Year 3 $80000
    Year 4 $20000

    Cost of capital is 10% pa.
    What is the ARR?

    dear sir how you calculate the ARR?
    As my ans is 55.56% and the real ans is 16.67%

    May 26, 2015 at 9:15 am #249081
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The total cash inflows = 200,000
    The total depreciation is 140,000
    Therefore the total profit is 60,000 and the average profit per year is 60,000/4 = 15,000

    The average amount of the investment is (160,000 + 20,000) /2 = 90,000

    Therefore the ARR = 15,000/90,000 = 16.67%

    May 26, 2015 at 11:06 am #249118
    Carmel
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Sorry John,

    I should be able to calculate X at this stage…. can you point me in the direction of where to start to do that please? I’ve drawn a complete blank.

    Thanks!

    May 26, 2015 at 2:54 pm #249186
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t understand what you are asking?

    There is no mention of X in the last question that was asked here.

    May 27, 2015 at 7:30 am #249423
    sarmadkhalid45
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    how to calculate effective cost of offering discount where only 60% customers taking advantage of discount?

    May 27, 2015 at 9:13 am #249484
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is irrelevant how many take the discount – we cannot force them to.

    We calculate the effective cost, and if it is lower than our overdraft rate then it is worth offering the discount (if higher then it is not). We would hope everyone would take the discount, but we cannot force them to 🙂

    May 27, 2015 at 11:43 am #249531
    sarmadkhalid45
    Participant
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    R plc has in issue $400000 8% bonds redeemable in 5 years time at a premiuim of 10% and investor required return is 12%.
    market value of debt?

    May 27, 2015 at 3:29 pm #249581
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Have you watched the lecture on the valuation of securities?

    It is the present value of the interest (of 32,000 per year for 5 years) and the redemption of 440,000 in 5 years time, all discounted at the required return of 12%.

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