Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › *** F9 June 2012 Exam was … Comments and Instant Poll ***
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- June 15, 2012 at 1:35 pm #100438AnonymousInactive
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@2833833abc said:
how was p/e ratio valuation done??????? Q4(a)Well I have no idea on how to do it initially but i have figured that since the equity and debt are given in percentage
–SECTOR AVG PER = 5 times
–EPS ( substitute with divided pay out ratio which you can calculate using infos)
= 500/EAIT (i dont remember how much exactly)
= say 40%
–Then get the share price using PER = 70 cents
–Corgic value = 70 cent x 0.75 of equity
=$52m#I seriously spent 5-10 mins approx figuring these damn thing out and I was like I am not going to leave these blanks and boomed these popped out of my mind.Even if these are wrong,I should have at least 1/2 marks just to play safe
June 15, 2012 at 1:39 pm #100440wooaaaa!!!! what i did was,
1. i left 2.(b)
* Q3. Islamic dinance confused with musharka :(!!! 5 marks wore incorrect :'(
*Q4 bcoz i time pressure i didnt saw the tax rate xD so i assumed it 30% clearly writting my assumption and then calculated WACC xD and that divident valuation was incomplete!!!! so i guess 20 marks gone hanged xDRemaining marks!!!!! battle to PASS!
Will pass INSHA ALLAHJune 15, 2012 at 1:39 pm #100441AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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I messed Q 4 also. Even though I had enough time:-(
On my opinion, CAPM and MM combined was the most difficult part of syllabus. With very strange and sometimes not logic calculations.
But I have to admit that the rest of questions were ok.@benfabregas said:
I messed up question 4 completely. I started de-gearing then figured I didnt need to. Hope I picked up some marksalong the way but definetely nowhere near the answer. Also was unsure about the difference between financial, business and systematic risk?Also, on question 2 I wasnt sure exactly what they were asking about working capital?!
June 15, 2012 at 1:41 pm #100442AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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@carl29 said:
Certainly a lot to cover. I thought some of the theory questions were a little unfair. I answered it all though, some of it was just a guess.I went through and i think i counted over 50, feeling confident
I think the first (sensitivity) and second (WC) questions theories sucks big time.I managed to squeeze in general infos like definition the relevant and I find the WC similarities and WC finance is the toughest one.I have no idea what it is and plain bullshit right there 9 marks.And I missed the Mudabarah whatever I have no idea what that is at all bang 5marks
June 15, 2012 at 1:43 pm #100443AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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@vjsharksn said:
wooaaaa!!!! what i did was,
1. i left 2.(b)
* Q3. Islamic dinance confused with musharka :(!!! 5 marks wore incorrect :'(
*Q4 bcoz i time pressure i didnt saw the tax rate xD so i assumed it 30% clearly writting my assumption and then calculated WACC xD and that divident valuation was incomplete!!!! so i guess 20 marks gone hanged xDRemaining marks!!!!! battle to PASS!
Will pass INSHA ALLAHI managed to answer all with slack in WC (theory part-9marks) and sensitivity analysis (7 marks) and mudabarah (5 marks). Hope my bullshitting explanations carries at least 1 mark.
June 15, 2012 at 1:47 pm #100444Mudabarah for 5 marks was very excessive. In my 800 page text book there is about 6 lines on it.
Can anyone advise me what I should have wrote about for the working capital question (Q2) and the risk question(Q4)
June 15, 2012 at 1:52 pm #100445For the question of islamic finance,
I give definition of mudaraba
Stating about how profit or loss shout be allocated
and the rab-al-mal cannot interfere with the way mudarib manage the business.
then i further states that speculation and extreme risk is not allowed in islamic finance, and that company is planning to hedge export receipt. So cannot use future contract because islamic finance prohibits this.Then i have no idea what to write for the 5 marks
June 15, 2012 at 1:54 pm #100446AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Couldn’t do Q4 at all well. hope for 50 but don’t think so.
Q4a PE ratio 5 time average and earning in Yr 1 is 3000 so I did 3000×5 = PE ratio 15000/3000 no discussion
Q4b Ke 13.6% by 75/(75+(25x.8)x1.6 =1.33 then for some reason I just went off track and did this Ke = 4%+(1.6×6%)
Q4c Could not work out value of Equity so didn’t do the WACC
Didn’t have time to answer about the risks. 🙁June 15, 2012 at 1:56 pm #100447Q4(a) I got $3million x 5 = $15 million
Actually you do not have to figure out the value of equity, question already given the proportion (and stated is based on market value).
June 15, 2012 at 1:56 pm #100448for Q3 hedging, the inflation rate was give. for calculation on money hedge and forward hedge, should we included inflation rate (PPP theory)?
June 15, 2012 at 2:00 pm #100449Guys was the discount rate in Q 1) 20%?
June 15, 2012 at 2:05 pm #100450June 15, 2012 at 2:05 pm #100451I cudnt understand the terminology muradhba. The examiner should translate that in English and keep that in bracket. Listen to me tony mr examiner , it’s absolutely not fair to give 5 marks for that. There are hardly 3 full sentences about it. Examiner could you suggest me what do I write? And how do u expect us to understand the terminology which we never use in our real lives. Translate that into English next time so that we can write which is which without a confusion. If I fail I blame u
June 15, 2012 at 2:05 pm #100452AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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1a) NPV, I think I messed up for the inflation rates portion, but still managed to obtain a positive NPV. 1b) EAC= NPV/Annuity factor, tax & CA were ignored so pretty straightforward, should be machine 1 as EAC is cheaper. 1c) Theory- Sensitivity analysis – “What If” analysis to identify critical variables where NPV = 0, probability analysis – choosing the best outcome of each project.
2a) Overtrading- 7 symptoms of overtrading. 1) Rapid increase in sales, 2) Decrease in GP margin, 3) Deterioration of quick and current ratio, 4) increase in inventory days, receivable days, payable days, 5) Asset turnover increased, 6) Overdraft increased, finance costs increased. 7) No change in equity shares, no change in L/T debt. Compare with industry average.
2b) Compare and contrast wc financing policy vs wc investing policy- made a little link to conservative, matching and aggressive policies. short-term/long term in nature.
2c) Miller Orr Model- Upper limit calculated wrongly 🙂
3a) SMEs vs large companies- define agency problem. lack of finance for SMEs, risk is not as high as large companies.
3b)Debt finance and factors- ??
3c) Mudaraba- Equity financing. Emphasised that it is similar to public issue, private placement, rights issue etc.
3d) Money market hedge and forward market hedge. Should be money market hedge as it is cheaper.
3e) PPP theory, calculated spot rate wrongly. 🙂
4a)P/E ratio- ?
4b) Ke- Use Capm to find Ke first by plucking in values like Rf and the risk premium. Next with Ke, use DVM to find MVE. Hope it is correct.
4ci) WACC- Ke from part(b), and Mve from part (b) + Kd (given) and Mvd by using proportion because of 75% vs 25% on market value basis. After which can derive WACC. WACC= 10% if I’m not wrong ii) Risk adjusted WACC, Ke changes- find new Ke using Capm formula. Kd is given once again. After which derive both Mve and Mvd by using proportion, this time 60 %, & 40%.. WACC = 10.3%. Discuss variation.
4d) Management of risks- Totally gave up on this one.
Overall, tough paper. 🙂
June 15, 2012 at 2:06 pm #100453AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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What discount rate did everyone use for the NPV and EAC question? I used the after tax rate both times… I seem to remover something about always using the after-tax rate even if you’re ignoring taxation. Still, a stab in the dark an hopefully won’t lose too many marks.
Also, my revision note show using the cost of borrowing instead of the wacc for a cost comparison of two projects, but wasn’t given, so I used the WACC anyway?
What did everyone else use? I used 7% both times instead of 12% pre-tax.
June 15, 2012 at 2:07 pm #100454AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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ps, ignore my predictive text spelling/grammar errors!
June 15, 2012 at 2:07 pm #100455AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Q1= took all the figures to the nearest $000…sensitivity analysis and probability can’t say anything abt it
Q2= part b about working capital…dunno if its right or wrong
Q3= went well…i guess forward contract was more suitable…don’t remember exactly now but probably it was giving more earning
Q4= supposed shares to be 75,000 Calculated EPS by dividing earnings with the assumed shares and did the rest of the part…i don’t think so any regearing was needed all we had to do was to re-calculate the equity using the new equity beta…the new wacc after the issuance of debt was around 10% i guessJune 15, 2012 at 2:08 pm #100456@xiaofang81 said:
why is DF @ 20%?@xiaofang81 said:
why is DF @ 20%?
I think the pre tax rate was given and we had to convert into post tax. Or I acted over smartly? If that’s the case I’m the biggest fool alive on earth. I blame Acca for that. I hate u accaJune 15, 2012 at 2:09 pm #100457AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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@melindamarchal said:
What discount rate did everyone use for the NPV and EAC question? I used the after tax rate both times… I seem to remover something about always using the after-tax rate even if you’re ignoring taxation. Still, a stab in the dark an hopefully won’t lose too many marks.Also, my revision note show using the cost of borrowing instead of the wacc for a cost comparison of two projects, but wasn’t given, so I used the WACC anyway?
What did everyone else use? I used 7% both times instead of 12% pre-tax.
used after tax wacc for project 1 but used before tax wacc for project 2…may be u r right so 1 mark gone here 🙁
June 15, 2012 at 2:10 pm #100458AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Discount rate – (a) use nominal before tax cost of capital 12% , (b) use nominal after tax cost of capital 7%
June 15, 2012 at 2:10 pm #100459AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Note to Royyston…
I got the MM hedge as being a lower amount, BUT it was a RECEIVABLE in euros, the the better option would have been a forward. Only 1 mark though, so wouldn’t worry.June 15, 2012 at 2:12 pm #100460AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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about degearing. Calm down there was no need to degear. We only do this when a company is planning to diversify into an unrelated area, that means doing something that is not co. In this particular question you were asked to do Wacc currently and after the intro of new debt. The co is still in the same business. Only degear a proxy company to eliminate thier financial risk before you regear to include your own fiancial risk. So there was no need to gear and regear you just needed to call on your {Table tools} for this one. mind you the com was only increasing its gearing l/reducing it and therefore capital structure in terms of equity and debt didnt change..It remained 100%.Easy by using table.
June 15, 2012 at 2:12 pm #100461AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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@royyston said:
1a) NPV, I think I messed up for the inflation rates portion, but still managed to obtain a positive NPV. 1b) EAC= NPV/Annuity factor, tax & CA were ignored so pretty straightforward, should be machine 1 as EAC is cheaper. 1c) Theory- Sensitivity analysis – “What If” analysis to identify critical variables where NPV = 0, probability analysis – choosing the best outcome of each project.2a) Overtrading- 7 symptoms of overtrading. 1) Rapid increase in sales, 2) Decrease in GP margin, 3) Deterioration of quick and current ratio, 4) increase in inventory days, receivable days, payable days, 5) Asset turnover increased, 6) Overdraft increased, finance costs increased. 7) No change in equity shares, no change in L/T debt. Compare with industry average.
2b) Compare and contrast wc financing policy vs wc investing policy- made a little link to conservative, matching and aggressive policies. short-term/long term in nature.
2c) Miller Orr Model- Upper limit calculated wrongly 🙂
3a) SMEs vs large companies- define agency problem. lack of finance for SMEs, risk is not as high as large companies.
3b)Debt finance and factors- ??
3c) Mudaraba- Equity financing. Emphasised that it is similar to public issue, private placement, rights issue etc.
3d) Money market hedge and forward market hedge. Should be money market hedge as it is cheaper.
3e) PPP theory, calculated spot rate wrongly. 🙂
4a)P/E ratio- ?
4b) Ke- Use Capm to find Ke first by plucking in values like Rf and the risk premium. Next with Ke, use DVM to find MVE. Hope it is correct.
4ci) WACC- Ke from part(b), and Mve from part (b) + Kd (given) and Mvd by using proportion because of 75% vs 25% on market value basis. After which can derive WACC. WACC= 10% if I’m not wrong ii) Risk adjusted WACC, Ke changes- find new Ke using Capm formula. Kd is given once again. After which derive both Mve and Mvd by using proportion, this time 60 %, & 40%.. WACC = 10.3%. Discuss variation.
4d) Management of risks- Totally gave up on this one.
Overall, tough paper. 🙂
i guess it was forward rate because it was a receipt hedging not payment hedging 🙂
June 15, 2012 at 2:14 pm #100462AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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anyhow…we must recognize that OT smart guesses were smart indeed …see: 1 a) Investment appraisal – lease v buy decision b) Written on replacement 3 a) Capital asset pricing model 4 b) foreign exchange risk management – forward rates and money markets …almost half exam…nice 🙂 thanks OT, I m not sure I ll pass it, but anyhow I learn something (more) from you!
June 15, 2012 at 2:14 pm #100463AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Oh yes, my bad. I think I put a forward contract too cos most of the questions I attempted previously were always forward contracts rather than a mm hedge.
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