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F9 june 2011 Q 2c,

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › F9 june 2011 Q 2c,

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by Vipin .
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  • November 26, 2012 at 3:00 am #55750
    aiden1989
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Discuss the director’s view that issuing traded bond will decrease the weighted average cost of capital of AQR and thereby increase the market value of the company.

    I am confusing by the answer module.

    This is my structure answer ,please give some advice whether is right or wrong.

    ( business valuation – Discounted cash flow)
    ( 1 + r ) = ( 1 + i ) / ( 1 + h)

    inflation remain same,there if the WACC decrease,the discounted using will be lower,

    Illutration before decrease wacc

    discounted = 1.11/1.05
    = 0.06

    PAT = $50M

    Company value = $500m

    Illutration 2

    WACC= 9%

    discounted =1.09/1.05
    = 0.04

    PAT = $50m

    company value= $1250m

    Gearing = Debt / Equity.

    Miller + modigliani theory with tax.(M+M)

    Kd=(Interest-tax)/Market Value

    M+M theory state company that finance 99.9% debt will maximum the benefit from tax relief on interest paid.Hence lower the WACC.

    However the director did not take consideration of the gearing level and risk.
    When the debt increasing the gearing and the equity remain same the gearing increase.
    When gearing is very high,shareholder expected to have higher return therefore WACC increase,company value decreasing.

    Director did not take consideration that if the company have insufficient profit to relief the interest paid.

    In conclusion,issue bonds will reduce WACC and increasing the market value of the company but to a specific level where the gearing level is the same as the market average.

    *When i compare the answer i dunno why the answer module use Marginal and average cost of debt,traditional view,market imperfection & pecking order.

    November 26, 2012 at 1:39 pm #108705
    Vipin
    Member
    • Topics: 151
    • Replies: 374
    • ☆☆☆☆

    their answer structure is simple,

    what manager assumed is if capital is replaced by debt the WACC can be reduced.
    so they discussed it under marginal aand average cost of debt.

    then they discussed 4 views on the relationship between WACC and capital structure.
    the 4 views are
    M&M
    traditional view,
    pecking theory
    market imperfection theory.

    November 26, 2012 at 5:09 pm #108706
    aiden1989
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    is it mean define wacc in all 4 views?

    November 26, 2012 at 6:21 pm #108707
    Vipin
    Member
    • Topics: 151
    • Replies: 374
    • ☆☆☆☆

    they did not ask for any calculation.

    manager here had a view and they discussed other view widely know.
    we are studying only above 4 views.

    they didnot ask to define WACC.

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