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F7 Provision

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › F7 Provision

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • July 28, 2014 at 4:38 pm #179854
    abbas7796
    Member
    • Topics: 135
    • Replies: 256
    • ☆☆☆

    hello Mike

    hope all is well

    i have a quick question. The question is pasted below:

    “Skeptic has two potential liabilities to assess. The first is an outstanding court case concerning a customer claiming damages for losses due to faulty components supplied by Skeptic

    estimated outcome of this liability is:

    Court case Product warranty claims:

    10% chance of no damages awarded
    65% chance of damages of $4 million
    25% chance of damages of $6 million

    Advise, and quantify where possible, how the above should be treated in Skeptic’s financial
    statements for the year ended 31 March 2014”

    The solution proposed by ACCA for this is:

    “For the court case the most probable single likely outcome is normally considered to be the best estimate of the liability, i.e.$4 million. This is particularly the case as the possible outcomes are either side of this amount. The $4 million will be an expense for the year ended 31 March 2014 and recognized as a provision”

    however i have done this differently. Like i have specified that Skeptic should recognize this as contingent liability where the estimated outcome of this liability is 10% and 25% and where it is 65%, it should make a provision of (0.65*4000,000) = 2600,000.

    is my method acceptable? can you explain why its 4m as provision in the solution by acca and not 2.6m?

    the reason i did multiply 65% to 4m is because thats how it was done in emily wolf text book

    thanks

    July 28, 2014 at 4:54 pm #179855
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Where the situation covers a series of potential claims, lie in a warranty situation, then the weighted average / expected value method is used. There’s an example of that in the P2 opentuition notes called Tamara and her micro-wave ovens.

    But where the situation is a one-off event, like the court case in the last exam, the correct calculation is to show the “most likely” at its full value.

    Conceptually, if you are to take 65% of $4m, why have you not also taken 25% of the $6m. THAT would have been the correct approach IF it had been such as a warranty claim provision

    This is concisely and precisely illustrated in the IASPLUS website article on IAS 37

    Sorry to be the bearer of bad news 🙁

    July 28, 2014 at 5:37 pm #179857
    abbas7796
    Member
    • Topics: 135
    • Replies: 256
    • ☆☆☆

    hello Mike

    thanks for your reply

    i understand about the weighted avg approach and i have done exactly that for the 2nd part of this question.

    however in the first part (that deals with court case) i did multiply 25% of 6million and advised skeptic to show it as contingent liability. for (65% chance of damages of $4 million) i advised skeptic to show it as provision since it was over 50%. i did multiply 65% to 4m

    July 28, 2014 at 7:54 pm #179869
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, but in a one-off situation, you should provide for the full (most likely) amount

    Again, sorry

    July 28, 2014 at 8:05 pm #179870
    abbas7796
    Member
    • Topics: 135
    • Replies: 256
    • ☆☆☆

    ok thanks mike

    July 30, 2014 at 5:17 am #179972
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You’re welcome

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